AIIMS CRE Lab Technician Mock Paper

1. Which anticoagulant prevents blood clotting by chelating calcium ions and is used for HbA1c testing?

1. कौन सा एंटीकोगुलेंट कैल्शियम आयनों को चेलेट करके रक्त के थक्के को रोकता है और HbA1c परीक्षण के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) K2-EDTA

(b) Heparin

(d) Sodium Fluoride

Answer: (a) K2-EDTA

(a) K2-EDTA: Correct. Chelates $Ca^{2+}$ and preserves cell morphology; standard tube for CBC and HbA1c.
(b) Heparin: Activates antithrombin III; used for blood gases and osmotic fragility, not HbA1c.
(c) Sodium Citrate: Binds calcium reversibly; used for coagulation assays (1:9) and ESR (1:4).
(d) Sodium Fluoride: Inhibits glycolysis (enolase); used for blood glucose estimation.

2. Which hemoglobin derivative cannot be measured by the standard Cyanmethemoglobin (Drabkin's) method?

2. मानक सायनामेथेमोग्लोबिन (ड्रैबकिन्स) विधि द्वारा किस हीमोग्लोबिन व्युत्पन्न का मापन नहीं किया जा सकता है?

(a) Oxyhemoglobin

(b) Methemoglobin

(d) Carboxyhemoglobin

Answer: (c) Sulfhemoglobin

(a) Oxyhemoglobin: Converted to methemoglobin and then cyanmethemoglobin by Drabkin's reagent.
(b) Methemoglobin: Reacts directly with potassium cyanide to form cyanmethemoglobin.
(c) Sulfhemoglobin: Correct. Irreversible Hb modification that does not react with cyanmethemoglobin reagent.
(d) Carboxyhemoglobin: Converted to cyanmethemoglobin, though conversion takes slightly longer.

3. Heinz bodies in erythrocytes are composed of:

3. एरिथ्रोसाइट्स में हाइंज बॉडीज (Heinz bodies) किससे बनी होती हैं?

(a) Denatured hemoglobin precipitates

(b) Nuclear DNA remnants

(d) Iron granule deposits

Answer: (a) Denatured hemoglobin precipitates

(a) Denatured hemoglobin precipitates: Correct. Formed due to oxidative stress (e.g., G6PD deficiency).
(b) Nuclear DNA remnants: Refers to Howell-Jolly bodies seen post-splenectomy.
(c) Aggregated ribosomal RNA: Refers to Basophilic stippling (seen in lead poisoning).
(d) Iron granule deposits: Refers to Pappenheimer bodies (siderotic granules).

4. What is the standard concentration and ratio of Sodium Citrate used for Westergren ESR estimation?

4. वेस्टर्ग्रेन ESR अनुमान के लिए उपयोग किए जाने वाले सोडियम साइट्रेट की मानक सांद्रता और अनुपात क्या है?

(a) 3.2% ratio 1:4

(b) 3.8% ratio 1:9

(d) 3.8% ratio 1:4

Answer: (d) 3.8% ratio 1:4

(a) 3.2% ratio 1:4: Incorrect ratio-concentration pairing for classical Westergren.
(b) 3.8% ratio 1:9: 1:9 ratio is strictly used for coagulation screening, not ESR.
(c) 3.2% ratio 1:9: Standard formulation used for PT and APTT testing.
(d) 3.8% ratio 1:4: Correct. 1 part citrate (3.8%) to 4 parts blood is standard for Westergren ESR.

5. What is the shelf life of Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs) preserved in CPDA-1 solution?

5. CPDA-1 घोल में संरक्षित पैक्ड रेड ब्लड सेल्स (PRBCs) की शेल्फ लाइफ क्या होती है?

(a) 21 days

(b) 35 days

(d) 5 days

Answer: (b) 35 days

(a) 21 days: Shelf life of blood collected in plain ACD or CPD anticoagulant.
(b) 35 days: Correct. Adenine in CPDA-1 maintains ATP levels, extending shelf life to 35 days at 2–6 °C.
(c) 42 days: Extended shelf life achieved when SAGM additive solution is used.
(d) 5 days: Maximum storage life for Platelet concentrates kept at 20–24 °C with agitation.

6. Which blood component is indicated for replacing factor VIII and fibrinogen in bleeding patients?

6. रक्तस्राव वाले रोगियों में फैक्टर VIII और फाइब्रिनोजेन को बदलने के लिए किस रक्त घटक की आवश्यकता होती है?

(a) Fresh Frozen Plasma

(b) Cryoprecipitate

(d) Platelet Concentrate

Answer: (b) Cryoprecipitate

(a) Fresh Frozen Plasma: Contains all coagulation factors but in lower concentrations per unit volume.
(b) Cryoprecipitate: Correct. Concentrated source of Factor VIII, Fibrinogen, vWF, and Factor XIII.
(c) Packed RBCs: Used exclusively to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in severe anemia.
(d) Platelet Concentrate: Used to treat severe thrombocytopenia or functional platelet defects.

7. Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT / Direct Coombs Test) is performed to detect:

7. डायरेक्ट एंटीग्लोबुलिन टेस्ट (DAT / डायरेक्ट कुम्ब्स टेस्ट) का उपयोग किसे डिटेक्ट करने के लिए किया जाता है?

(a) Antibodies bound to RBC surface in vivo

(b) Free antibodies present in serum

(d) Platelet autoantibodies in blood

Answer: (a) Antibodies bound to RBC surface in vivo

(a) Antibodies bound to RBC surface in vivo: Correct. Diagnoses HDN, AIHA, and transfusion reactions.
(b) Free antibodies present in serum: Detected by Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT).
(c) Antigens present in donor plasma: Identified through routine blood group typing procedures.
(d) Platelet autoantibodies in blood: Requires specialized platelet antibody assays (e.g., MAIPA).

8. Which coagulation pathway is specifically evaluated by Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)?

8. एक्टिवेटेड पार्शियल थ्रोम्बोप्लास्टिन टाइम (APTT) द्वारा किस जमावट मार्ग (Coagulation pathway) का मूल्यांकन किया जाता है?

(a) Extrinsic pathway only

(b) Intrinsic and Common pathways

(d) Platelet activation pathway

Answer: (b) Intrinsic and Common pathways

(a) Extrinsic pathway only: Assessed by Prothrombin Time (PT) test using Tissue Factor.
(b) Intrinsic and Common pathways: Correct. Evaluates Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, and I.
(c) Fibrinolytic pathway: Measured via D-Dimer and Fibrin Degradation Products (FDPs).
(d) Platelet activation pathway: Evaluated using bleeding time or light transmission aggregometry.

9. What is the primary cause of Osmotic Fragility increase in red blood cells?

9. लाल रक्त कोशिकाओं में ऑस्मोटिक नाजुकता (Osmotic Fragility) में वृद्धि का मुख्य कारण क्या है?

(a) Sickle cell anemia

(b) Hereditary Spherocytosis

(d) Thalassemia minor

Answer: (b) Hereditary Spherocytosis

(a) Sickle cell anemia: Shows decreased osmotic fragility due to target cells and sickled cells.
(b) Hereditary Spherocytosis: Correct. Spherocytes have reduced surface-area-to-volume ratio and lyse easily in hypotonic saline.
(c) Iron deficiency anemia: Demonstrates decreased osmotic fragility due to hypochromic microcytic cells.
(d) Thalassemia minor: Characterized by target cells which decrease osmotic fragility.

10. What cell is the immediate precursor to a mature reticulocyte during erythropoiesis?

10. एरिथ्रोपोइसिस के दौरान एक परिपक्व रेटिकुलोसाइट का निकटतम पूर्वज (immediate precursor) कौन सी कोशिका है?

(a) Basophilic normoblast

(b) Polychromatic normoblast

(d) Proerythroblast

Answer: (c) Orthochromatic normoblast

(a) Basophilic normoblast: Early stage with active RNA synthesis; precedes polychromatic stage.
(b) Polychromatic normoblast: Intermediate stage showing both basophilic RNA and eosinophilic Hb.
(c) Orthochromatic normoblast: Correct. Extrudes its nucleus to become a reticulocyte.
(d) Proerythroblast: First morphologically identifiable erythroid progenitor cell in bone marrow.

11. In the Jendrassik-Grof method for total bilirubin estimation, what chemical acts as the accelerator?

11. कुल बिलीरुबिन अनुमान के लिए जेंड्रासिक-ग्रॉफ विधि में, कौन सा रसायन त्वरक (accelerator) के रूप में कार्य करता है?

(a) Caffeine-Sodium Benzoate

(b) Methanol

(d) Diazotized Sulfanilic Acid

Answer: (a) Caffeine-Sodium Benzoate

(a) Caffeine-Sodium Benzoate: Correct. Solubilizes unconjugated bilirubin so it reacts with diazo reagent.
(b) Methanol: Used as accelerator in the older Malloy-Evelyn method.
(c) Sodium Hydroxide: Added later in the reaction to convert azobilirubin to a blue alkaline complex.
(d) Diazotized Sulfanilic Acid: The primary chromogenic diazo reagent itself.

12. Which cardiac biomarker rises earliest in blood following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?

12. एक्यूट मायोकार्डियल इन्फार्क्शन (AMI) के बाद रक्त में कौन सा कार्डिएक बायोमार्कर सबसे पहले बढ़ता है?

(a) Cardiac Troponin I

(b) CK-MB

(d) LDH-1

Answer: (c) Myoglobin

(a) Cardiac Troponin I: Rises 3–4 hours post-AMI; gold standard for specificity.
(b) CK-MB: Rises 4–6 hours post-AMI; useful for detecting re-infarction.
(c) Myoglobin: Correct. Small heme protein released within 1–3 hours of muscle injury (high sensitivity, low specificity).
(d) LDH-1: Peak elevation occurs late, between 48–72 hours post-AMI.

13. In the alkaline picrate (Jaffé's) reaction for creatinine, what produces the measured orange-red color complex?

13. क्रिएटिनिन के लिए एल्कलाइन पिकरेट (जाफे) प्रतिक्रिया में, कौन सी चीज मापे गए नारंगी-लाल रंग का कॉम्प्लेक्स बनाती है?

(a) Creatinine picrate complex

(b) Creatinine folate complex

(d) Picric acid reduction product

Answer: (a) Creatinine picrate complex

(a) Creatinine picrate complex: Correct. Creatinine reacts with picric acid in alkaline medium to form Janus-red/orange tautomer measured at 520 nm.
(b) Creatinine folate complex: Non-existent chemical entity in Jaffé's reaction.
(c) Sodium hydroxide precipitate: NaOH provides alkaline medium; it does not form the color complex.
(d) Picric acid reduction product: Interferences like acetoacetate can reduce picrate, forming false color.

14. Which enzyme is most specifically elevated in obstructive liver disease (cholestasis)?

14. ऑब्स्ट्रक्टिव लिवर रोग (कोलेस्टेसिस) में कौन सा एंजाइम सबसे विशेष रूप से बढ़ा हुआ होता है?

(a) Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)

(b) Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)

(d) Amylase

Answer: (b) Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)

(a) Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT): Specific marker for acute hepatocellular necrosis, not obstruction.
(b) Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP): Correct. Epithelial cells of bile canaliculi produce ALP during biliary stasis.
(c) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH): Non-specific marker elevated in hemolysis, cardiac, and tissue necrosis.
(d) Amylase: Specific biomarker for acute pancreatitis.

15. What formula represents the Friedewald equation for calculating Low-Density Lipoprotein Cholesterol (LDL-C)?

15. लो-डेंसिटी लिपोप्रोटीन कोलेस्ट्रॉल (LDL-C) की गणना के लिए फ्रीडवाल्ड समीकरण कौन सा है?

(a) LDL = Total Cholesterol - HDL - (Triglycerides / 5)

(b) LDL = Total Cholesterol + HDL - (Triglycerides / 5)

(d) LDL = Total Cholesterol - HDL + (Triglycerides / 5)

Answer: (a) LDL = Total Cholesterol - HDL - (Triglycerides / 5)

(a) LDL = TC - HDL - (TG / 5): Correct. (TG/5) estimates VLDL-C in mg/dL (valid if TG < 400 mg/dL).
(b) LDL = TC + HDL - (TG / 5): Incorrect mathematical signs.
(c) LDL = TC - HDL - (TG / 2.2): Formula used when TG and Cholesterol are measured in mmol/L, not mg/dL.
(d) LDL = TC - HDL + (TG / 5): Incorrect operation adding VLDL component.

16. The presence of Bence-Jones proteins in urine is characterized by which thermal property?

16. मूत्र में बेंस-जोन्स प्रोटीन की उपस्थिति किस तापीय गुण (thermal property) द्वारा पहचानी जाती है?

(a) Precipitates at 100 °C and dissolves at 40 °C

(b) Precipitates at 40–60 °C and redissolves at 100 °C

(d) Irreversible precipitation at 60 °C

Answer: (b) Precipitates at 40–60 °C and redissolves at 100 °C

(a) Precipitates at 100 °C: Standard proteins coagulate permanently at boiling point.
(b) Precipitates at 40–60 °C and redissolves at 100 °C: Correct. Classic diagnostic property of free light chains (Multiple Myeloma).
(c) Precipitates at 0 °C: Describes cryoglobulins, not Bence-Jones proteins.
(d) Irreversible precipitation: False; Bence-Jones precipitates cleared upon boiling and re-appear when cooled.

17. Which reagent is used in Hay's test to detect the presence of bile salts in urine?

17. मूत्र में पित्त लवण (bile salts) की उपस्थिति का पता लगाने के लिए हे (Hay's) परीक्षण में किस अभिकर्मक का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Barium Chloride powder

(b) Sublimed Sulfur powder

(d) Sulphosalicylic acid

Answer: (b) Sublimed Sulfur powder

(a) Barium Chloride powder: Used in Fouchet's test to precipitate bilirubin.
(b) Sublimed Sulfur powder: Correct. Bile salts lower surface tension, causing sulfur particles to sink.
(c) Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent: Used to detect urobilinogen and porphobilinogen.
(d) Sulphosalicylic acid: Used for qualitative turbidity testing of urine protein.

18. What wavelength is typically used for measuring NADH consumption in kinetic enzyme assays at 340 nm?

18. 340 nm पर काइनेटिक एंजाइम एस्से में NADH की खपत को मापने के लिए किस तरंग दैर्ध्य का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Ultraviolet (UV) range

(b) Visible Green range

(d) Visible Red range

Answer: (a) Ultraviolet (UV) range

(a) Ultraviolet (UV) range: Correct. 340 nm falls in UV spectrum where reduced NADH absorbs light strongly.
(b) Visible Green range: Light spectrum covers ~500–550 nm.
(c) Infrared range: Spectrum covers wavelengths above 700 nm.
(d) Visible Red range: Spectrum covers ~620–700 nm.

19. Which serum protein migrates closest to the anode (+ pole) during standard SPE at pH 8.6?

19. pH 8.6 पर मानक SPE के दौरान कौन सा सीरम प्रोटीन एनोड (+ ध्रुव) के सबसे करीब माइग्रेट करता है?

(a) Gamma globulin

(b) Beta globulin

(d) Alpha-2 globulin

Answer: (c) Albumin

(a) Gamma globulin: Has lowest net negative charge; stays closest to cathode (- pole).
(b) Beta globulin: Migrates between Alpha-2 and Gamma fractions.
(c) Albumin: Correct. Smallest size and highest net negative charge at pH 8.6, moving fastest towards anode (+).
(d) Alpha-2 globulin: Migrates behind Albumin and Alpha-1 globulin.

20. Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects the average blood glucose concentration over what period?

20. ग्लाइकेटेड हीमोग्लोबिन (HbA1c) किस अवधि में औसत रक्त शर्करा सांद्रता को दर्शाता है?

(a) 2 to 3 days

(b) 2 to 3 weeks

(d) 1 year

Answer: (c) 2 to 3 months

(a) 2 to 3 days: Reflects fasting/postprandial self-monitoring blood glucose values.
(b) 2 to 3 weeks: Measured by Serum Fructosamine assay.
(c) 2 to 3 months: Correct. Corresponds to average red blood cell lifespan of 120 days.
(d) 1 year: Too long; RBCs are completely replaced every 120 days.

21. What is the decolorizing agent used in Ziehl-Neelsen staining for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

21. मायकोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूबरक्लोसिस के लिए जिल-नील्सन (ZN) स्टेनिंग में प्रयुक्त विरंजक अभिकर्मक (decolorizing agent) क्या है?

(a) 95% Ethanol

(b) 20% Sulfuric acid

(d) Acetone

Answer: (b) 20% Sulfuric acid

(a) 95% Ethanol: Used as decolorizer in Gram stain.
(b) 20% Sulfuric acid: Correct. Strong acid required to decolorize non-acid fast cells while acid-fast M. tuberculosis retains Carbol Fuchsin.
(c) 1% Hydrochloric acid: Used in modified ZN stain for Nocardia.
(d) Acetone: Rapid decolorizer used in Gram staining variants.

22. Which culture medium produces metallic green sheen colonies when E. coli is cultured?

22. E. coli का संवर्धन (culture) करने पर कौन सा कल्चर माध्यम धात्विक हरी चमक (metallic green sheen) वाली कॉलोनियां पैदा करता है?

(a) MacConkey Agar

(b) Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) Agar

(d) TCBS Agar

Answer: (b) Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) Agar

(a) MacConkey Agar: E. coli produces dry pink lactose-fermenting colonies.
(b) Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) Agar: Correct. Rapid lactose fermentation precipitates aniline dyes forming metallic green sheen.
(c) Blood Agar: E. coli shows non-specific beta-hemolytic or gamma-hemolytic colonies.
(d) TCBS Agar: Selective medium for Vibrio species producing yellow or green colonies.

23. Catalase test differentiates which two major clinical bacterial groups?

23. कैटालेज़ परीक्षण किन दो प्रमुख नैदानिक जीवाणु समूहों को अलग करता है?

(a) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

(b) E. coli and Salmonella

(d) Bacillus and Clostridium

Answer: (a) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

(a) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus: Correct. Staphylococci are Catalase positive (effervescence with $H_2O_2$); Streptococci are Catalase negative.
(b) E. coli and Salmonella: Differentiated by lactose fermentation and IMViC tests.
(c) Pseudomonas and Klebsiella: Differentiated by Oxidase test and motility.
(d) Bacillus and Clostridium: Differentiated by oxygen requirements (aerobe vs anaerobe).

24. What type of motility is characteristic of Giardia lamblia trophozoites in fresh stool mounts?

24. ताजे मल के नमूनों में जिआर्डिया लैम्बलिया ट्रॉफोज़ोइट्स की विशेषता किस प्रकार की गतिशीलता (motility) है?

(a) Darting motility

(b) Falling leaf motility

(d) Stately motility

Answer: (b) Falling leaf motility

(a) Darting motility: Characteristic of Vibrio cholerae in dark-field microscopy.
(b) Falling leaf motility: Correct. Progressive slow tumbling movement produced by flagella of G. lamblia.
(c) Amoeboid motility: Produced by pseudopodia in Entamoeba histolytica.
(d) Stately motility: Characteristic of Bacillus anthracis or Clostridium species.

25. Which fungal pathogen shows positive Germ Tube formation within 2–3 hours in human serum at 37 °C?

25. कौन सा फंगल रोगजनकों 37 °C पर मानव सीरम में 2-3 घंटों के भीतर सकारात्मक जर्म ट्यूब (Germ Tube) निर्माण दिखाता है?

(a) Cryptococcus neoformans

(b) Candida albicans

(d) Histoplasma capsulatum

Answer: (b) Candida albicans

(a) Cryptococcus neoformans: Urease positive encapsulated yeast; germ tube negative.
(b) Candida albicans: Correct. Forms true germ tubes (Reynolds-Braude phenomenon) without constriction at origin.
(c) Aspergillus fumigatus: Filamentous mold with dichotomous branching hyphae.
(d) Histoplasma capsulatum: Dimorphic fungus producing tuberculate macroconidia.

26. Which plasmodium parasite characteristically produces crescent or banana-shaped gametocytes?

26. कौन सा प्लास्मोडियम परजीवी विशेष रूप से अर्धचंद्राकार या केले के आकार के युग्मकोशिका (gametocytes) पैदा करता है?

(a) Plasmodium vivax

(b) Plasmodium falciparum

(d) Plasmodium ovale

Answer: (b) Plasmodium falciparum

(a) Plasmodium vivax: Produces round/oval gametocytes filling enlarged RBCs with Schüffner's dots.
(b) Plasmodium falciparum: Correct. Crescent/banana-shaped gametocytes are pathognomonic for P. falciparum.
(c) Plasmodium malariae: Produces round gametocytes and band-form trophozoites in normal RBCs.
(d) Plasmodium ovale: Produces round gametocytes in fimbriated oval RBCs.

27. What biological indicator spore is used to validate proper functioning of an Autoclave?

27. ऑटोक्लेव के समुचित कार्य को सत्यापित करने के लिए किस जैविक संकेतक बीजाणु (biological indicator spore) का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Bacillus atrophaeus

(b) Geobacillus stearothermophilus

(d) Bacillus cereus

Answer: (b) Geobacillus stearothermophilus

(a) Bacillus atrophaeus: Biological indicator used for Dry Heat (Hot Air Oven) and Ethylene Oxide sterilization.
(b) Geobacillus stearothermophilus: Correct. Highly heat-resistant thermophilic spore used for moist heat (autoclave) monitoring.
(c) Clostridium perfringens: Anaerobic spore-forming pathogen; not used as sterilization indicator.
(d) Bacillus cereus: Toxin-producing foodborne pathogen.

28. Which antigen-antibody serological test utilizes sheep red blood cells sensitized with anti-sheep hemolysin?

28. कौन सा एंटीजन-एंटीबॉडी सेरोलॉजिकल टेस्ट एंटी-शीप हेमोलाइसीन से संवेदनशील भेड़ लाल रक्त कोशिकाओं का उपयोग करता है?

(a) Complement Fixation Test (CFT)

(b) Widal Test

(d) Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay

Answer: (a) Complement Fixation Test (CFT)

(a) Complement Fixation Test (CFT): Correct. Uses sheep RBCs + hemolysin indicator system to detect free complement.
(b) Widal Test: Agglutination reaction using bacterial O and H antigens for enteric fever.
(c) VDRL Test: Flocculation test using cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen for syphilis.
(d) ELISA: Enzyme-conjugated ligand binding assay on solid phases.

29. What is the composition of Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium inhibitor that suppresses unwanted Gram-positive bacteria?

29. लोवेनस्टीन-जेन्सन (LJ) माध्यम में अवांछित ग्राम-पॉजिटिव बैक्टीरिया को दबाने वाले अवरोधक (inhibitor) का घटक क्या है?

(a) Crystal violet

(b) Malachite green

(d) Basic fuchsin

Answer: (b) Malachite green

(a) Crystal violet: Inhibitor used in MacConkey Agar to suppress Gram-positive organisms.
(b) Malachite green: Correct. Selective dye in LJ medium that inhibits non-mycobacterial flora.
(c) Bile salts: Selective agent in MacConkey and DCA media against non-enteric organisms.
(d) Basic fuchsin: Dye component used in Endo agar and ZN staining.

30. What color halo is produced by Cryptococcus neoformans on Niger Seed (Bird Seed) Agar?

30. नाइजर सीड (बर्ड सीड) अगर पर क्रिप्टोकोकस नियोफॉर्मन्स द्वारा किस रंग की कॉलोनी या हेलो का निर्माण होता है?

(a) Bright Pink

(b) Golden Yellow

(d) Metallic Green

Answer: (c) Dark Brown to Black

(a) Bright Pink: Color produced by yeast lactose fermenters on CHROMagar.
(b) Golden Yellow: Typical colony pigment of Staphylococcus aureus on nutrient agar.
(c) Dark Brown to Black: Correct. Phenoloxidase enzyme in C. neoformans converts caffeic acid in niger seed to melanin pigment.
(d) Metallic Green: Characteristic sheen produced by E. coli on EMB agar.

31. What is the concentration of Formaldehyde gas present in a 100% saturated commercial formalin solution?

31. 100% संतृप्त व्यावसायिक फॉर्मेलिन घोल में फॉर्मलाडेहाइड गैस की सांद्रता कितनी होती है?

(a) 10%

(b) 37–40%

(d) 100%

Answer: (b) 37–40%

(a) 10%: Concentration of formaldehyde in 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin (which contains 4% gas).
(b) 37–40%: Correct. Saturated solution of formaldehyde gas in water is commercially defined as 100% formalin.
(c) 70%: Standard concentration of ethyl alcohol used for routine disinfection.
(d) 100%: Pure gaseous state, impossible in liquid solution at ambient conditions.

32. Which clearing agent is most widely used in automated tissue processors despite being toxic?

32. विषैला होने के बावजूद स्वचालित ऊतक प्रोसेसर (automated tissue processors) में कौन सा क्लियरिंग एजेंट सबसे व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Chloroform

(b) Xylene

(d) Cedarwood oil

Answer: (b) Xylene

(a) Chloroform: Good clearing agent for nervous tissue but slow and expensive; does not make tissue overly brittle.
(b) Xylene: Correct. Rapidly clears alcohol, miscible with paraffin, refractive index matches protein; industry standard.
(c) Benzene: Highly carcinogenic clearing agent; largely banned in modern pathology labs.
(d) Cedarwood oil: Expensive natural clearing agent used for delicate tissues and histology research.

33. What is the standard melting point range for paraffin wax used in routine histological embedding?

33. नियमित हिस्टोलॉजिकल एम्बेडिंग में प्रयुक्त पैराफिन वैक्स की मानक गलनांक सीमा (melting point range) क्या है?

(a) 37–40 °C

(b) 45–50 °C

(d) 70–80 °C

Answer: (c) 56–58 °C

(a) 37–40 °C: Soft wax used for specialized tropical climates or soft tissue applications.
(b) 45–50 °C: Water bath temperature maintained for floating section ribbons.
(c) 56–58 °C: Correct. Provides optimal tissue support matching knife resistance for 3–5 micron cutting.
(d) 70–80 °C: Excessive heat causing extreme tissue shrinkage, distortion, and hardening.

34. Which nuclear stain component in Papanicolaou (Pap) stain provides sharp blue nuclear detail?

34. पैपैनिकोलाउ (Pap) स्टेन में कौन सा न्यूक्लियर स्टेन घटक स्पष्ट नीला न्यूक्लियर विवरण प्रदान करता है?

(a) Orange G-6

(b) Eosin Y

(d) Light Green SF

Answer: (c) Harris Hematoxylin

(a) Orange G-6: Cytoplasmic counterstain specifically staining keratinized cells bright orange.
(b) Eosin Y: Component of EA-50 staining superficial squamous cell cytoplasm pink.
(c) Harris Hematoxylin: Correct. Regressive nuclear stain binding chromatin to produce blue nuclear detail.
(d) Light Green SF: Component of EA-50 staining cyanophil cytoplasm blue-green.

35. Amyloid deposits stained with Congo Red demonstrate what diagnostic appearance under polarized light?

35. कांगो रेड से रंगे हुए अमाइलॉइड जमाव ध्रुवीकृत प्रकाश (polarized light) के तहत क्या नैदानिक रूप दिखाते हैं?

(a) Golden yellow fluorescence

(b) Apple-green birefringence

(d) Dark blue diffraction

Answer: (b) Apple-green birefringence

(a) Golden yellow fluorescence: Seen when Thioflavin T stain is used with UV fluorescence microscopy.
(b) Apple-green birefringence: Correct. Pathognomonic property when Congo Red bound beta-pleated sheets split polarized light.
(c) Bright red luminescence: Appearance under standard light microscopy before polarization.
(d) Dark blue diffraction: Non-existent optical phenomenon in amyloid Congo red staining.

36. What fixative is mandatory for preserving lipids/fats for Frozen Section examination?

36. फ्रोजन सेक्शन परीक्षा के लिए लिपिड/वसा को संरक्षित करने के लिए कौन सा फिक्सटिव अनिवार्य है?

(a) Carnoy's fluid

(b) 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin without alcohol processing

(d) Absolute alcohol

Answer: (b) 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin without alcohol processing

(a) Carnoy's fluid: Contains chloroform and alcohol which completely dissolve tissue lipids.
(b) 10% NBF without alcohol processing: Correct. Formalin fixes proteins without dissolving lipids; cryostat sectioning avoids alcohol dehydration.
(c) Bouin's fluid: Contains picric acid; cleared via alcohols dissolving lipid content.
(d) Absolute alcohol: Strong organic solvent that completely leaches out fat and lipids.

37. In Bio-Medical Waste rules, human anatomical waste and placenta must be segregated into which color container?

37. बायो-मेडिकल वेस्ट नियमों में, मानव शारीरिक अपशिष्ट (anatomical waste) और प्लेसेंटा को किस रंग के कंटेनर में अलग किया जाना चाहिए?

(a) Red bag

(b) Yellow bag

(d) White translucent container

Answer: (b) Yellow bag

(a) Red bag: Designated for recyclable contaminated plastic waste (tubing, gloves, IV bottles).
(b) Yellow bag: Correct. Designated for human anatomical, soiled, microbial waste, and incinerable items.
(c) Blue box: Designated for glass materials and metal body implants.
(d) White translucent container: Designated for waste sharps (needles, scalpels, blades).

38. What concentration of Sodium Hypochlorite solution is recommended for cleaning blood spills in the laboratory?

38. प्रयोगशाला में रक्त के फैलाव (blood spills) की सफाई के लिए सोडियम हाइपोक्लोराइट समाधान की किस सांद्रता की सिफारिश की जाती है?

(a) 0.1%

(b) 1% (10,000 ppm)

(d) 10%

Answer: (b) 1% (10,000 ppm)

(a) 0.1%: Used for general surface sanitation of non-organic clean environments.
(b) 1% (10,000 ppm): Correct. Recommended by WHO and CDC for decontaminating organic blood spills.
(c) 5%: Concentrated household bleach strength; highly corrosive to lab instruments without additional benefit.
(d) 10%: Industrial concentration causing dangerous chlorine gas release and severe chemical burns.

39. Which microtome knife profile is traditionally used for cutting paraffin embedded sections on rotary microtome?

39. रोटरी माइक्रोटोम पर पैराफिन एम्बेडेड सेक्शन को काटने के लिए पारंपरिक रूप से किस माइक्रोटोम नाइफ प्रोफाइल का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Planoconcave

(b) Biconcave

(d) Tool edge

Answer: (c) Wedge-shaped (Biconvex / Straight edge)

(a) Planoconcave: Extremely sharp knife profile used for cutting soft frozen sections or celloidin.
(b) Biconcave: Used for rocking microtome to cut extremely thin soft tissue sections.
(c) Wedge-shaped: Correct. Standard rigid profile suitable for paraffin wax blocks on rotary microtomes.
(d) Tool edge: Heavy-duty chisel edge used for cutting hard un-decalcified bone tissue.

40. Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) stain demonstrates glycogen and fungi by oxidizing glycol groups to:

40. पीरियोडिक एसिड-शिफ (PAS) स्टेन ग्लाइकोजन और कवक को ग्लाइकोल समूहों को किसमें ऑक्सीकृत करके प्रदर्शित करता है?

(a) Carboxylic acids

(b) Aldehydes

(d) Esters

Answer: (b) Aldehydes

(a) Carboxylic acids: Over-oxidation product if periodic acid concentration or time is excessive.
(b) Aldehydes: Correct. Periodic acid cleaves 1,2-glycol linkages to form dialdehydes which react with Schiff's reagent.
(c) Ketones: Secondary reaction product not involved in Schiff reagent chromophore coupling.
(d) Esters: Non-reactive organic species in PAS histochemical cascade.

41. What is the principle of Flow Cytometry used in automated hematology analyzers?

41. स्वचालित रुधिर विज्ञान विश्लेषकों (automated hematology analyzers) में उपयोग किए जाने वाले फ्लो साइटोमेट्री का सिद्धांत क्या है?

(a) Light scattering and fluorescence measurement of individual single cells in a fluid stream

(b) Electrical impedance variation across a micro-aperture

(d) Refractive index change measurement

Answer: (a) Light scattering and fluorescence measurement of individual single cells in a fluid stream

(a) Flow Cytometry principle: Correct. Single cells aligned by hydrodynamic focusing scatter laser light (FSC/SSC) and fluoresce.
(b) Electrical impedance: Coulter principle; measures cell volume based on voltage pulses across aperture.
(c) Colorimetric absorbance: Principle used in spectrophotometric hemoglobin determination.
(d) Refractive index change: Principle used in urine refractometry.

42. Which quality control rule (Westgard rule) is triggered when 2 consecutive control values exceed the same 2 Standard Deviation limit?

42. कौन सा वेस्टगार्ड नियम (Westgard rule) तब ट्रिगर होता है जब लगातार 2 नियंत्रण मान (control values) समान 2 मानक विचलन सीमा (2SD) से अधिक हो जाते हैं?

(a) 1(3s)

(b) 2(2s)

(d) 4(1s)

Answer: (b) 2(2s)

(a) 1(3s): Rejection rule triggered when 1 control measurement exceeds 3 SD (indicates random error).
(b) 2(2s): Correct. Rejection rule triggered when 2 consecutive runs exceed +2SD or -2SD (indicates systematic error).
(c) R(4s): Rejection rule triggered when difference between two controls within run exceeds 4 SD (random error).
(d) 4(1s): Warning/rejection rule when 4 consecutive values exceed +1SD or -1SD.

43. What is the main constituent of Masson's Trichrome stain that colors collagen fibers blue?

43. मेसन के ट्राइक्रोम स्टेन का मुख्य घटक क्या है जो कोलेजन फाइबर को नीला रंग देता है?

(a) Aniline Blue

(b) Acid Fuchsin

(d) Fast Green

Answer: (a) Aniline Blue

(a) Aniline Blue: Correct. Acidic dye that selectively binds collagen in presence of phosphotungstic acid.
(b) Acid Fuchsin: Stains muscle fibers and cytoplasm red.
(c) Biebrich Scarlet: Primary plasma stain coloring cytoplasm and muscle red.
(d) Fast Green: Alternative counterstain used when green collagen coloration is preferred.

44. In Nephrometry / Turbidimetry, nephelometry measures scattered light at what angle relative to incident light?

44. नेफेलोमेट्री / टर्बिडिमीट्री में, नेफेलोमेट्री आपतित प्रकाश (incident light) के संबंध में किस कोण पर प्रकीर्णित प्रकाश (scattered light) को मापती है?

(a) 0 degrees (straight line)

(b) 90 degrees (or forward angles 30-70 deg)

(d) 45 degrees strictly only

Answer: (b) 90 degrees (or forward angles 30-70 deg)

(a) 0 degrees: Turbidimetry measures transmitted unscattered light at 0 degrees.
(b) 90 degrees: Correct. Nephelometry measures light scattered at right angles or forward angles to incident beam.
(c) 180 degrees: Reflected backscatter angle.
(d) 45 degrees strictly: Too narrow; nephelometry detectors cover ranges around 90 or forward 30-70 degrees.

45. What anticoagulant is used for Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) collection?

45. एर्टिरियल ब्लड गैस (ABG) संग्रह के लिए किस एंटीकोगुलेंट का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Lyophilized / Liquid Heparin

(b) EDTA

(d) Sodium Oxalate

Answer: (a) Lyophilized / Liquid Heparin

(a) Lyophilized / Liquid Heparin: Correct. Balanced lithium heparin prevents clotting without altering $pH, pCO_2, pO_2$.
(b) EDTA: Alters blood $pH$ and chelates divalent ions affecting electrolyte channels.
(c) Sodium Citrate: Liquid dilutes sample significantly, altering gas partial pressures.
(d) Sodium Oxalate: Precipitates calcium and alters plasma $pH$.

46. What is the primary function of a Mordant in histological staining?

46. हिस्टोलॉजिकल स्टेनिंग में मोर्डेंट (Mordant) का प्राथमिक कार्य क्या है?

(a) To decolorize unwanted background stain

(b) To serve as a chemical link between tissue and dye

(d) To preserve tissue morphology

Answer: (b) To serve as a chemical link between tissue and dye

(a) To decolorize background: Done by decolorizing agents like acid alcohol.
(b) To serve as chemical link: Correct. Divalent/trivalent metallic ions (alum, iron) bridge tissue and dye molecule.
(c) To dehydrate tissue: Performed by alcohol series.
(d) To preserve morphology: Function of fixatives.

47. Which enzyme is used in glucose reagent kits according to the GOD-POD method?

47. GOD-POD विधि के अनुसार ग्लूकोज अभिकर्मक किट (glucose reagent kits) में किस एंजाइम का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Glucose Oxidase and Peroxidase

(b) Hexokinase and G6PD

(d) Amylase and Lipase

Answer: (a) Glucose Oxidase and Peroxidase

(a) Glucose Oxidase and Peroxidase: Correct. GOD oxidizes glucose to gluconic acid + $H_2O_2$; POD acts on $H_2O_2$ to yield pink dye.
(b) Hexokinase and G6PD: Reference enzymatic method for glucose estimation.
(c) Glucose Dehydrogenase: Used in glucose glucometer strip technology.
(d) Amylase and Lipase: Pancreatic digestive enzymes.

48. What diagnostic test uses EDTA-treated whole blood for Osmotic Fragility Test?

48. ऑस्मोटिक फ्रैजिलिटी टेस्ट (Osmotic Fragility Test) के लिए किस एंटीकोगुलेंट युक्त संपूर्ण रक्त का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Heparinized whole blood

(b) EDTA whole blood

(d) Oxalated whole blood

Answer: (a) Heparinized whole blood

(a) Heparinized whole blood: Correct. Heparin does not alter red cell salts or cell volume; EDTA alters cell membrane osmotic equilibrium.
(b) EDTA whole blood: Unsuitable as it alters membrane permeability and intracellular salts.
(c) Citrated whole blood: Causes dilution and hypertonic osmotic shifts.
(d) Oxalated whole blood: Alters intracellular ion balance.

49. What is the normal reference range for Serum Potassium in adults?

49. वयस्कों में सीरम पोटेशियम (Serum Potassium) की सामान्य संदर्भ सीमा क्या है?

(a) 135–145 mEq/L

(b) 3.5–5.0 mEq/L

(d) 98–107 mEq/L

Answer: (b) 3.5–5.0 mEq/L

(a) 135–145 mEq/L: Normal reference range for Serum Sodium ($Na^+$).
(b) 3.5–5.0 mEq/L: Correct. Normal physiological reference range for Serum Potassium ($K^+$).
(c) 8.5–10.5 mEq/L: Normal reference range for Total Serum Calcium ($Ca^{2+}$ in mg/dL).
(d) 98–107 mEq/L: Normal reference range for Serum Chloride ($Cl^-$).

50. Which immunoglobulin class can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity to the fetus?

50. कौन सी इम्युनोग्लोबुलिन श्रेणी भ्रूण को निष्क्रिय प्रतिरक्षा (passive immunity) प्रदान करने के लिए प्लेसेंटा को पार कर सकती है?

(a) IgM

(b) IgG

(d) IgE

Answer: (b) IgG

(a) IgM: Pentameric structure; too large to cross placental barrier.
(b) IgG: Correct. Monomeric structure with specific Fc receptors (FcRn) facilitating placental transport.
(c) IgA: Dimeric secretory antibody found predominantly in mucosal fluids.
(d) IgE: Cytophilic antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions.

51. What is the principal component of Drabkin's Reagent used to convert Cyanmethemoglobin?

51. सायनामेथेमोग्लोबिन में बदलने के लिए उपयोग किए जाने वाले ड्रैबकिन्स अभिकर्मक (Drabkin's Reagent) का मुख्य घटक क्या है?

(a) Potassium ferricyanide and Potassium cyanide

(b) Sodium hydroxide and Copper sulfate

(d) Barium chloride and Sodium azide

Answer: (a) Potassium ferricyanide and Potassium cyanide

(a) Potassium ferricyanide + Potassium cyanide: Correct. Ferricyanide oxidizes $Fe^{2+}$ to $Fe^{3+}$ (Methemoglobin), Cyanide converts it to Cyanmethemoglobin.
(b) Sodium hydroxide + Copper sulfate: Components of Biuret reagent for total protein.
(c) HCl + Glycerol: Reagents for Sahli's acid hematin preparation.
(d) Barium chloride + Sodium azide: Preservative and precipitating reagents.

52. Bence Jones protein consists of monoclonal free:

52. बेंस जोन्स प्रोटीन में मोनोक्लोनल फ्री शामिल हैं:

(a) Heavy chains

(b) Light chains (Kappa or Lambda)

(d) Beta-2 microglobulins

Answer: (b) Light chains (Kappa or Lambda)

(a) Heavy chains: Excess heavy chain secretion causes Heavy Chain Disease.
(b) Light chains: Correct. Monoclonal free Kappa ($\kappa$) or Lambda ($\lambda$) immunoglobulin light chains excreted in urine in Multiple Myeloma.
(c) Albumin fragments: Excreted in glomerular kidney diseases.
(d) Beta-2 microglobulins: Marker of tubular dysfunction.

53. What fixative is best suited for preserving fine nuclear detail in cytology specimens?

53. साइटोलॉजी नमूनों में महीन न्यूक्लियर विवरण को संरक्षित करने के लिए कौन सा फिक्सटिव सबसे उपयुक्त है?

(a) 95% Ethanol

(b) 10% Neutral Buffered Formalin

(d) Chloroform

Answer: (a) 95% Ethanol

(a) 95% Ethanol: Correct. Standard fixative for Pap smears, preserving chromatin structure without over-hardening.
(b) 10% NBF: Routine histology fixative; causes cell shrinkage and nuclear condensation in cytological smears.
(c) Acetone: Used for rapid frozen section immunohistochemistry fixative; causes severe cell distortion.
(d) Chloroform: Lipid solvent; not used as standalone cytology fixative.

54. What color does Acid-Fast Bacilli (AFB) stain in a completed Ziehl-Neelsen stain?

54. एक पूर्ण जिल-नील्सन (ZN) स्टेन में एसिड-फास्ट बैसिली (AFB) किस रंग का दिखाई देता है?

(a) Blue

(b) Bright Red / Pink

(d) Yellow

Answer: (b) Bright Red / Pink

(a) Blue: Color of background tissue cells and non-acid-fast bacteria stained by Methylene Blue counterstain.
(b) Bright Red / Pink: Correct. Carbol Fuchsin retained by mycolic acid wall resists acid decolorization.
(c) Green: Color of background when Malachite Green is used as counterstain.
(d) Yellow: Color produced by Auramine-Rhodamine fluorescent stain background.

55. Which blood group system possesses naturally occurring antibodies (IgM) without prior RBC sensitization?

55. किस ब्लड ग्रुप सिस्टम में पूर्व RBC संवेदीकरण के बिना स्वाभाविक रूप से पाए जाने वाले एंटीबॉडी (IgM) होते हैं?

(a) Rh System

(b) ABO System

(d) Duffy System

Answer: (b) ABO System

(a) Rh System: IgG antibodies formed only after exposure (transfusion or pregnancy).
(b) ABO System: Correct. Anti-A and Anti-B are naturally occurring IgM antibodies present in individuals lacking corresponding antigens.
(c) Kell System: Immune IgG antibodies requiring foreign blood exposure.
(d) Duffy System: Immune IgG antibodies associated with transfusion reactions.

56. What is the diagnostic test for identifying Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm) eggs?

56. एंटरोबियस वर्मीकुलारिस (पिनवर्म) के अंडों की पहचान के लिए नैदानिक परीक्षण क्या है?

(a) Stool Concentration technique

(b) NIH Swab / Scotch Tape Test

(d) Urine sediment test

Answer: (b) NIH Swab / Scotch Tape Test

(a) Stool Concentration technique: Unreliable as pinworm eggs are deposited perianally, not passed in stool.
(b) NIH Swab / Scotch Tape Test: Correct. Samples perianal folds early morning before bathing to capture D-shaped ova.
(c) Blood smear examination: Used for microfilaria and malaria detection.
(d) Urine sediment test: Used for Schistosoma haematobium ova detection.

57. What is the maximum storage time for reconstituted lyophilized chemistry control materials when stored at 2–8 °C?

57. 2-8 °C पर संग्रहीत करने पर पुनर्गठित लायोफिलाइज्ड रसायन विज्ञान नियंत्रण सामग्री (reconstituted control materials) के लिए अधिकतम भंडारण समय क्या है?

(a) 24 hours

(b) 7 to 14 days

(d) 6 months

Answer: (b) 7 to 14 days

(a) 24 hours: Applies to unstable reconstituted components like Bilirubin or alkaline phosphatase if exposed to light/room temp.
(b) 7 to 14 days: Correct. Manufacturer recommendation for most reconstituted lyophilized serum controls kept refrigerated at 2–8 °C.
(c) 30 days: Exceeds stability of reconstituted enzymes and proteins.
(d) 6 months: Shelf life of un-reconstituted dry lyophilized vials stored frozen.

58. Which tissue element is specifically stained red by Oil Red O stain?

58. ऑयल रेड ओ (Oil Red O) स्टेन द्वारा किस ऊतक तत्व (tissue element) को विशेष रूप से लाल रंग में रंगा जाता है?

(a) Glycogen

(b) Neutral Lipids / Fats

(d) Amyloid

Answer: (b) Neutral Lipids / Fats

(a) Glycogen: Stained magenta by PAS stain.
(b) Neutral Lipids / Fats: Correct. Lysochrome solvent stain dissolving directly into neutral lipids on frozen sections.
(c) Collagen: Stained blue by Masson's Trichrome.
(d) Amyloid: Stained red by Congo Red and demonstrates green birefringence.

59. What reagent is used in the Ehrlich reaction for urine urobilinogen estimation?

59. मूत्र यूरोबिलिनोजेन अनुमान के लिए एर्लिच प्रतिक्रिया (Ehrlich reaction) में किस अभिकर्मक का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

(b) Diazotized sulfanilic acid

(d) Sodium nitroprusside

Answer: (a) p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

(a) p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde: Correct. Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent reacts with urobilinogen in acidic medium to form cherry-red color.
(b) Diazotized sulfanilic acid: Diazo reagent used for bilirubin estimation.
(c) Barium chloride: Used in Fouchet's test for bile pigments.
(d) Sodium nitroprusside: Reagent in Rothera's test for ketone bodies.

60. What is the specific gravity range of normal random human urine?

60. सामान्य मानव मूत्र की विशिष्ट गुरुत्व सीमा (specific gravity range) क्या है?

(a) 1.000–1.005

(b) 1.003–1.035

(d) 1.080–1.100

Answer: (b) 1.003–1.035

(a) 1.000–1.005: Indicates pure water (1.000) or dilute urine in diabetes insipidus.
(b) 1.003–1.035: Correct. Normal physiological range depending on hydration state.
(c) 1.040–1.060: Pathological hypersthenuria seen in severe dehydration or radiocontrast dye presence.
(d) 1.080–1.100: Non-physiological extreme value.

61. What type of antibody is involved in Type I Hypersensitivity (Anaphylactic) reactions?

61. टाइप I अतिसंवेदनशीलता (ऐनाफिलेक्टिक) प्रतिक्रियाओं में किस प्रकार की एंटीबॉडी शामिल होती है?

(a) IgG

(b) IgE

(d) IgA

Answer: (b) IgE

(a) IgG: Involved in Type II (cytotoxic) and Type III (immune-complex) hypersensitivity.
(b) IgE: Correct. Binds Fc receptors on mast cells/basophils triggering histamine release during Type I reactions.
(c) IgM: Primary agglutinating antibody involved in Type II complement activation.
(d) IgA: Mucosal defense antibody; not involved in anaphylaxis.

62. Which enzyme elevation is the earliest indicator of acute pancreatitis?

62. कौन सा एंजाइम वृद्धि तीव्र अग्नाशयशोथ (acute pancreatitis) का सबसे प्रारंभिक संकेतक है?

(a) Lipase

(b) Serum Amylase

(d) Lactate Dehydrogenase

Answer: (b) Serum Amylase

(a) Lipase: More specific than amylase; remains elevated longer (7–14 days), but rises slightly later than amylase.
(b) Serum Amylase: Correct. Rises within 2–12 hours of onset of acute pancreatitis.
(c) Alkaline Phosphatase: Marker of biliary obstruction.
(d) Lactate Dehydrogenase: Non-specific cell breakdown marker.

63. What is the standard speed and time for centrifuging routine blood samples for serum separation?

63. सीरम पृथक्करण के लिए नियमित रक्त नमूनों को सेंट्रीफ्यूज करने की मानक गति और समय क्या है?

(a) 1000 RPM for 30 minutes

(b) 3000–3500 RPM (approx 1000–2000 g) for 10 minutes

(d) 500 RPM for 5 minutes

Answer: (b) 3000–3500 RPM (approx 1000–2000 g) for 10 minutes

(a) 1000 RPM for 30 min: Too slow; leads to incomplete gel barrier separation and fibrin clot formation.
(b) 3000–3500 RPM for 10 min: Correct. Standard protocol providing adequate relative centrifugal force ($g$) without inducing hemolysis.
(c) 10,000 RPM for 2 min: High speed causing mechanical RBC rupture (hemolysis).
(d) 500 RPM for 5 min: Inadequate separation.

64. Which cellular structure is specifically stained green by Papanicolaou (EA-50) stain?

64. पैपैनिकोलाउ (EA-50) स्टेन द्वारा किस कोशिकीय संरचना को विशेष रूप से हरा रंगा जाता है?

(a) Keratinized cytoplasm

(b) Cyanophilic cytoplasm (Intermediate / Parabasal cells)

(d) Red Blood Cells

Answer: (b) Cyanophilic cytoplasm (Intermediate / Parabasal cells)

(a) Keratinized cytoplasm: Stained orange by Orange G-6.
(b) Cyanophilic cytoplasm: Correct. Light Green SF in EA-50 stains metabolically active non-keratinized cells blue-green.
(c) Cell Nucleus: Stained dark blue/purple by Hematoxylin.
(d) Red Blood Cells: Stained orange-pink by Eosin/OG-6.

65. What is the purpose of the primary stain Crystal Violet in Gram's staining method?

65. ग्राम स्टेनिंग विधि में प्राथमिक स्टेन क्रिस्टल वायलेट का उद्देश्य क्या है?

(a) To stain all bacterial cells purple initially

(b) To selectively stain Gram-negative bacteria pink

(d) To fix bacteria onto glass slide

Answer: (a) To stain all bacterial cells purple initially

(a) To stain all bacterial cells purple initially: Correct. Primary basic dye penetrating peptidoglycan of both Gram +ve and -ve cells.
(b) To selectively stain Gram-negative pink: Function of Safranin counterstain.
(c) To act as decolorizer: Function of acetone-alcohol.
(d) To fix bacteria onto slide: Accomplished by heat fixation or methanol beforehand.

66. What diagnostic parasite form is identified in thick blood smears for Filariasis collected at night (10 PM to 2 AM)?

66. रात (10 बजे से 2 बजे) में एकत्र किए गए फाइलेरिया के लिए मोटे रक्त के नमूनों में किस नैदानिक परजीवी रूप की पहचान की जाती है?

(a) Adult filarial worms

(b) Microfilariae showing nocturnal periodicity

(d) Trophozoites

Answer: (b) Microfilariae showing nocturnal periodicity

(a) Adult filarial worms: Reside in lymphatic vessels; not present in peripheral blood smears.
(b) Microfilariae showing nocturnal periodicity: Correct. Wuchereria bancrofti microfilariae migrate to peripheral blood during nocturnal hours matching vector mosquito feeding.
(c) Cercariae: Free-swimming larval stage of Schistosoma in water.
(d) Trophozoites: Protozoan active stage (e.g., Malaria, Amoeba).

67. What instrument measures the intensity of light scattered by immune complexes in solution?

67. कौन सा उपकरण घोल में प्रतिरक्षा परिसरों (immune complexes) द्वारा प्रकीर्णित प्रकाश की तीव्रता को मापता है?

(a) Spectrophotometer

(b) Nephelometer

(d) Refractometer

Answer: (b) Nephelometer

(a) Spectrophotometer: Measures light absorbance/transmission in solution at specific wavelengths.
(b) Nephelometer: Correct. Specifically measures light scattered at angles by antigen-antibody immune complexes.
(c) Flame Photometer: Measures atomic emission light of alkali metals ($Na, K, Li$).
(d) Refractometer: Measures light refractive index changes (urine specific gravity, total protein).

68. What is the function of the "Blank" in spectrophotometry calibration?

68. स्पेक्ट्रोफोटोमेट्री अंशांकन (calibration) में "ब्लैंक" का कार्य क्या है?

(a) To correct for background absorbance of reagents and solvent

(b) To set 100% Absorbance

(d) To calibrate wavelength grating

Answer: (a) To correct for background absorbance of reagents and solvent

(a) To correct for background absorbance: Correct. Sets instrument baseline to Zero Absorbance (100% Transmittance) for all non-analyte components.
(b) To set 100% Absorbance: Incorrect; blank sets 0% Absorbance (100% Transmittance).
(c) To measure maximum concentration: Done by highest calibrator/standard.
(d) To calibrate wavelength grating: Accomplished using holmium oxide or didymium filters.

69. What chemical component causes "chatter" or microtome lines on paraffin tissue sections?

69. पैराफिन ऊतक अनुभागों (tissue sections) पर "चैटर" या माइक्रोटोम लाइन का क्या कारण है?

(a) Dull or nicked knife blade / loose knife holder

(b) Over-fixation in formalin

(d) Soft paraffin wax

Answer: (a) Dull or nicked knife blade / loose knife holder

(a) Dull blade / loose holder: Correct. Causes mechanical vibration (chatter) or score lines parallel to knife direction.
(b) Over-fixation: Causes tissue brittleness, not specific knife lines.
(c) Warm water bath: Causes section expansion or over-stretching artifacts.
(d) Soft paraffin wax: Causes section compression or folding.

70. Which bacterial pathogen causes Gas Gangrene and shows double zone of hemolysis on Blood Agar?

70. कौन सा जीवाणु रोगजनक गैस गैंग्रीन (Gas Gangrene) का कारण बनता है और ब्लड अगर पर हेमोलिसिस का दोहरा क्षेत्र (double zone) दिखाता है?

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium perfringens

(d) Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer: (b) Clostridium perfringens

(a) Clostridium tetani: Causes tetanus; produces swarming growth on blood agar.
(b) Clostridium perfringens: Correct. Anaerobic spore-former causing gas gangrene; produces inner complete ($\theta$-toxin) and outer incomplete ($\alpha$-toxin) double zone hemolysis.
(c) Bacillus anthracis: Non-hemolytic (gamma hemolytic) medusa-head colonies.
(d) Streptococcus pyogenes: Single zone of sharp beta hemolysis.

71. What is the main preservative used in routine 24-hour urine collection for Catecholamines?

71. कैटेकोलामाइन के लिए नियमित 24 घंटे के मूत्र संग्रह में प्रयुक्त मुख्य परिरक्षक (preservative) क्या है?

(a) 10 mL Concentration HCl

(b) Boric acid

(d) Toluene

Answer: (a) 10 mL Concentration HCl

(a) 10 mL Conc. HCl: Correct. Maintains urine pH < 3 to prevent oxidation and degradation of catecholamines and VMA.
(b) Boric acid: Preserves urine for routine protein and culture transport.
(c) Sodium carbonate: Alkaline preservative used for porphyrins.
(d) Toluene: Organic surface preservative preventing bacterial growth without acidifying.

72. Which parameter is directly measured by a blood gas analyzer pH electrode?

72. ब्लड गैस एनालाइजर पीएच इलेक्ट्रोड द्वारा कौन सा पैरामीटर सीधे मापा जाता है?

(a) Hydrogen ion activity ($H^+$)

(b) Bicarbonate concentration ($HCO_3^-$)

(d) Oxygen saturation ($sO_2$)

Answer: (a) Hydrogen ion activity ($H^+$)

(a) Hydrogen ion activity ($H^+$): Correct. Measured using a specialized glass pH membrane electrode.
(b) Bicarbonate concentration ($HCO_3^-$): Calculated parameter via Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
(c) Carbon dioxide partial pressure ($pCO_2$): Measured directly by Severinghaus electrode.
(d) Oxygen saturation ($sO_2$): Measured by co-oximetry module or calculated.

73. What is the principle of Mass Spectrometry (LC-MS/MS) used in reference clinical biochemistry laboratories?

73. संदर्भ नैदानिक जैव रसायन प्रयोगशालाओं में प्रयुक्त मास स्पेक्ट्रोमेट्री (LC-MS/MS) का सिद्धांत क्या है?

(a) Ionization and separation of molecules based on mass-to-charge ratio (m/z)

(b) Light absorption by colored complexes

(d) Radioactive isotope decay counting

Answer: (a) Ionization and separation of molecules based on mass-to-charge ratio (m/z)

(a) Separation based on m/z ratio: Correct. Molecules are ionized in gas phase and separated precisely by magnetic/electric fields according to $m/z$.
(b) Light absorption: Principle of spectrophotometry.
(c) Fluorophore excitation: Principle of fluorometry.
(d) Radioactive decay: Principle of Radioimmunoassay (RIA).

74. Which virus is the primary cause of post-transfusion hepatitis transmitted via blood transfusions prior to screening implementation?

74. स्क्रीनिंग कार्यान्वयन से पहले रक्त आधान के माध्यम से प्रेषित पोस्ट-ट्रांसफ्यूजन हेपेटाइटिस का प्राथमिक कारण कौन सा वायरस है?

(a) Hepatitis A Virus

(b) Hepatitis B Virus and Hepatitis C Virus

(d) Cytomegalovirus only

Answer: (b) Hepatitis B Virus and Hepatitis C Virus

(a) Hepatitis A Virus: Transmitted primarily via feco-oral route; rarely bloodborne.
(b) HBV and HCV: Correct. Parenterally transmitted viruses causing major post-transfusion chronic hepatitis.
(c) Hepatitis E Virus: Enterically transmitted feco-oral waterborne virus.
(d) Cytomegalovirus only: Leukotropic virus causing infection primarily in immunocompromised recipients.

75. What is the standard concentration of Alcohol used for skin site preparation prior to blood donor venipuncture?

75. रक्तदाता वेनिपंक्चर (blood donor venipuncture) से पहले त्वचा की तैयारी के लिए प्रयुक्त अल्कोहल की मानक सांद्रता क्या है?

(a) 70% Isopropyl alcohol followed by 2% Chlorhexidine / Iodine

(b) 100% Absolute alcohol

(d) 1% Sodium hypochlorite

Answer: (a) 70% Isopropyl alcohol followed by 2% Chlorhexidine / Iodine

(a) 70% Isopropyl alcohol + Chlorhexidine/Iodine: Correct. Two-step antiseptic protocol ensuring complete skin spore and flora disinfection.
(b) 100% Absolute alcohol: Ineffective surface disinfectant because water is required to coagulate bacterial protein.
(c) 10% Formalin: Toxic tissue fixative; inappropriate for living skin contact.
(d) 1% Sodium hypochlorite: Environmental bleach disinfectant; highly irritating to living tissue.

76. What is the purpose of decalcification in tissue preparation for histopathology?

76. हिस्टोपैथोलॉजी के लिए ऊतक की तैयारी में डिकैल्सीफिकेशन (decalcification) का क्या उद्देश्य है?

(a) To harden soft tissues for microtomy

(b) To remove calcium mineral deposits from bone/calcified tissue prior to sectioning

(d) To clear alcohol from tissue blocks

Answer: (b) To remove calcium mineral deposits from bone/calcified tissue prior to sectioning

(a) To harden soft tissues: Function of fixatives and paraffin wax.
(b) To remove calcium deposits: Correct. Mineral acids (Nitric/Formic acid) solubilize calcium salts preventing knife damage.
(c) To fix tissue proteins: Function of formaldehydes and aldehydes.
(d) To clear alcohol: Function of xylene clearing agents.

77. What type of ELISA uses immobilized antibody on microplate wells to capture target antigen from patient sample?

77. किस प्रकार के ELISA में रोगी के नमूने से लक्षित एंटीजन को पकड़ने के लिए माइक्रोप्लेट कुओं पर स्थिर एंटीबॉडी का उपयोग किया जाता है?

(a) Direct ELISA

(b) Indirect ELISA

(d) Competitive ELISA

Answer: (c) Sandwich ELISA

(a) Direct ELISA: Target antigen directly coated on microplate wells.
(b) Indirect ELISA: Target antigen coated on wells to detect antibody in patient serum.
(c) Sandwich ELISA: Correct. Capture antibody bound to solid phase traps antigen, which is then detected by enzyme-labeled secondary antibody.
(d) Competitive ELISA: Unlabeled sample antigen competes with labeled antigen for limited binding sites.

78. What color is observed in a positive Methyl Red (MR) biochemical test?

78. सकारात्मक मिथाइल रेड (MR) जैव रासायनिक परीक्षण में कौन सा रंग देखा जाता है?

(a) Yellow

(b) Red

(d) Green

Answer: (b) Red

(a) Yellow: Negative MR reaction ($pH > 6.0$, indicating lack of stable mixed acid fermentation).
(b) Red: Correct. Positive MR test ($pH < 4.4$) demonstrating stable mixed acid fermentation (e.g., E. coli).
(c) Blue: Color of positive Citrate test on Simmons Citrate agar.
(d) Green: Color of negative Citrate test or phenylalanine deaminase test initial reaction.

79. What is the major extracellular cation responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure and plasma volume?

79. ऑस्मोटिक दबाव और प्लाज्मा वॉल्यूम बनाए रखने के लिए जिम्मेदार प्रमुख बाह्यकोशिकीय कटियन (extracellular cation) कौन सा है?

(a) Potassium ($K^+$)

(b) Sodium ($Na^+$)

(d) Magnesium ($Mg^{2+}$)

Answer: (b) Sodium ($Na^+$)

(a) Potassium ($K^+$): Major intracellular cation maintaining resting membrane potential.
(b) Sodium ($Na^+$): Correct. Predominant extracellular cation (~140 mEq/L) determining extracellular osmolality.
(c) Calcium ($Ca^{2+}$): Major mineral for bone structure, muscle contraction, and coagulation.
(d) Magnesium ($Mg^{2+}$): Second most abundant intracellular cation and enzymatic cofactor.

80. What type of safety cabinet is required for processing infectious tuberculosis sputum specimens?

80. संक्रामक तपेदिक (TB) थूक के नमूनों को संसाधित करने के लिए किस प्रकार के सुरक्षा कैबिनेट की आवश्यकता होती है?

(a) Class I Biosafety Cabinet

(b) Class II Biosafety Cabinet (Type A2 / B2)

(d) Standard fume hood

Answer: (b) Class II Biosafety Cabinet (Type A2 / B2)

(a) Class I Cabinet: Protects operator and environment but does not protect product/culture from contamination.
(b) Class II Cabinet: Correct. HEPA-filtered laminar airflow protects personnel, environment, and sample from aerosolized M. tuberculosis.
(c) Horizontal Laminar Flow Hood: Blows air directly toward operator; forbidden for infectious pathogens.
(d) Standard fume hood: Designed for chemical vapors only; lacks HEPA biological filtration.

81. Where is the apex Indian medical research council (ICMR) headquarters located?

81. शीर्ष भारतीय चिकित्सा अनुसंधान परिषद (ICMR) का मुख्यालय कहाँ स्थित है?

(a) Mumbai

(b) New Delhi

(d) Kolkata

Answer: (b) New Delhi

(a) Mumbai: Location of Tata Memorial Centre and ACTREC.
(b) New Delhi: Correct. ICMR headquarters is situated in New Delhi.
(c) Pune: Location of National Institute of Virology (NIV).
(d) Kolkata: Location of National Institute of Cholera and Enteric Diseases (NICED).

82. "World Health Day" is celebrated globally every year on:

82. "विश्व स्वास्थ्य दिवस" (World Health Day) हर साल विश्व स्तर पर कब मनाया जाता है?

(a) 7th April

(b) 14th June

(d) 28th July

Answer: (a) 7th April

(a) 7th April: Correct. Marks the founding anniversary of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948.
(b) 14th June: World Blood Donor Day.
(c) 1st December: World AIDS Day.
(d) 28th July: World Hepatitis Day.

83. Which national organ in India regulates laboratory accreditation standard NABL?

83. भारत में कौन सा राष्ट्रीय निकाय प्रयोगशाला मान्यता मानक NABL को नियंत्रित करता है?

(a) Quality Council of India (QCI)

(b) ICMR

(d) CDSCO

Answer: (a) Quality Council of India (QCI)

(a) Quality Council of India (QCI): Correct. NABL operates as an autonomous constituent board under QCI.
(b) ICMR: Apex body for biomedical research coordination.
(c) AIIMS: Premier autonomous medical education institute network.
(d) CDSCO: National pharmaceutical and medical device regulatory authority.

84. What is the vector responsible for transmitting Dengue and Chikungunya viruses to humans?

84. मनुष्यों में डेंगू और चिकनगुनिया वायरस संचारित करने के लिए कौन सा वाहक (vector) जिम्मेदार है?

(a) Anopheles mosquito

(b) Aedes aegypti mosquito

(d) Phlebotomus sandfly

Answer: (b) Aedes aegypti mosquito

(a) Anopheles mosquito: Vector for Malaria transmission.
(b) Aedes aegypti mosquito: Correct. Day-biting mosquito transmitting Dengue, Chikungunya, and Zika viruses.
(c) Culex mosquito: Vector for Japanese Encephalitis and Lymphatic Filariasis.
(d) Phlebotomus sandfly: Vector for Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar).

85. Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which clinical bleeding disorder?

85. विटामिन सी की कमी से कौन सा नैदानिक ब्लीडिंग डिसऑर्डर (bleeding disorder) होता है?

(a) Rickets

(b) Scurvy

(d) Pellagra

Answer: (b) Scurvy

(a) Rickets: Caused by Vitamin D deficiency in children.
(b) Scurvy: Correct. Impairs collagen hydroxylation causing capillary fragility, bleeding gums, and petechiae.
(c) Beriberi: Caused by Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency.
(d) Pellagra: Caused by Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency.

86. Complete the analogy: Microtome : Tissue Sections :: Centrifuge : ?

86. सादृश्य को पूरा करें: माइक्रोटोम : ऊतक अनुभाग :: सेंट्रीफ्यूज : ?

(a) Blood Cell Count

(b) Serum Separation

(d) Culture Incubation

Answer: (b) Serum Separation

(a) Blood Cell Count: Done by automated cell counter / hemocytometer.
(b) Serum Separation: Correct. Microtome prepares tissue sections; Centrifuge separates serum/plasma components by density.
(c) Smear Staining: Accomplished using staining troughs or automated stainers.
(d) Culture Incubation: Accomplished using incubators.

87. Find the missing number in the series: 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?

87. श्रृंखला में लुप्त संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए: 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?

(a) 119

(b) 139

(d) 179

Answer: (c) 159

Pattern: Each number is multiplied by 2 and increased by 1 ($\times 2 + 1$).
$4 \times 2 + 1 = 9$
$9 \times 2 + 1 = 19$
$19 \times 2 + 1 = 39$
$39 \times 2 + 1 = 79$
Next step: $79 \times 2 + 1 = 159$. Correct option is (c).

88. If "ELISA" is coded as "FMJTB", how is "SERUM" coded in the same pattern?

88. यदि "ELISA" को "FMJTB" के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है, तो उसी पैटर्न में "SERUM" को कैसे कोडित किया जाएगा?

(a) TFSVN

(b) TFRVN

(d) TFSTN

Answer: (a) TFSVN

Pattern: Each letter is shifted by +1 position forward in alphabet.
E (+1) $\rightarrow$ F, L (+1) $\rightarrow$ M, I (+1) $\rightarrow$ J, S (+1) $\rightarrow$ T, A (+1) $\rightarrow$ B.
Applying to SERUM: S $\rightarrow$ T, E $\rightarrow$ F, R $\rightarrow$ S, U $\rightarrow$ V, M $\rightarrow$ N.
Result: TFSVN. Correct option is (a).

89. A technician prepares 200 mL of 10% Formalin solution. How much 100% stock formalin is required?

89. एक तकनीशियन 200 mL 10% फॉर्मेलिन घोल तैयार करता है। कितने 100% स्टॉक फॉर्मेलिन की आवश्यकता होगी?

(a) 10 mL

(b) 20 mL

(d) 100 mL

Answer: (b) 20 mL

Formula: $C_1 V_1 = C_2 V_2$
$100\% \times V_1 = 10\% \times 200\text{ mL}$
$V_1 = \frac{2000}{100} = 20\text{ mL}$ stock formalin (diluted with 180 mL water/buffer).
Result: 20 mL. Correct option is (b).

90. Identify the odd one out from the following laboratory tests:

90. निम्नलिखित प्रयोगशाला परीक्षणों में से बेजोड़ (odd one) की पहचान करें:

(a) Prothrombin Time (PT)

(b) APTT

(d) Liver Function Test (LFT)

Answer: (d) Liver Function Test (LFT)

(a), (b), (c): PT, APTT, and BT are all specific blood coagulation / hemostasis profile tests.
(d) LFT: Correct. LFT is a biochemical panel measuring liver metabolic enzymes and bilirubin, not a coagulation parameter.

91. The average weight of 5 blood bags is 450 grams. If one bag weighing 500 g is replaced by a bag weighing 400 g, new average:

91. 5 ब्लड बैग का औसत वजन 450 ग्राम है। यदि 500 ग्राम वजन वाले एक बैग को 400 ग्राम वजन वाले बैग से बदल दिया जाए, तो नया औसत क्या होगा?

(a) 430 g

(b) 440 g

(d) 450 g

Answer: (b) 440 g

Original Total Weight = $5 \times 450 = 2250\text{ g}$.
New Total Weight = $2250 - 500 + 400 = 2150\text{ g}$.
New Average = $\frac{2150}{5} = 440\text{ g}$.
Result: 440 g. Correct option is (b).

92. If 4 lab technicians can process 120 samples in 3 hours, how many samples can 6 technicians process in 5 hours?

92. यदि 4 लैब तकनीशियन 3 घंटे में 120 नमूनों को संसाधित कर सकते हैं, तो 6 तकनीशियन 5 घंटे में कितने नमूनों को संसाधित कर सकते हैं?

(a) 200

(b) 250

(d) 360

Answer: (c) 300

Work Formula: $\frac{W_1}{M_1 \times T_1} = \frac{W_2}{M_2 \times T_2}$
$\frac{120}{4 \times 3} = \frac{W_2}{6 \times 5} \Rightarrow \frac{120}{12} = \frac{W_2}{30} \Rightarrow 10 = \frac{W_2}{30}$
$W_2 = 10 \times 30 = 300\text{ samples}$.
Result: 300. Correct option is (c).

93. What is 25% of 80% of 1000?

93. 1000 के 80% का 25% क्या है?

(a) 150

(b) 200

(d) 300

Answer: (b) 200

Calculation: $1000 \times \frac{80}{100} \times \frac{25}{100}$
$= 1000 \times 0.8 \times 0.25 = 800 \times 0.25 = 200$.
Result: 200. Correct option is (b).

94. A microscope costing Rs. 40,000 is sold at a discount of 15%. What is the selling price?

94. 40,000 रुपये की लागत वाले एक माइक्रोस्कोप को 15% की छूट पर बेचा जाता है। बिक्री मूल्य क्या है?

(a) Rs. 32,000

(b) Rs. 34,000

(d) Rs. 36,000

Answer: (b) Rs. 34,000

Discount Amount = $15\% \text{ of } 40,000 = \frac{15}{100} \times 40,000 = 6,000\text{ Rs}$.
Selling Price = $40,000 - 6,000 = 34,000\text{ Rs}$.
Result: Rs. 34,000. Correct option is (b).

95. In a laboratory test run of 500 samples, 2% were found to be invalid. How many samples were valid?

95. 500 नमूनों के एक प्रयोगशाला परीक्षण में, 2% अमान्य पाए गए। कितने नमूने मान्य थे?

(a) 480

(b) 490

(d) 495

Answer: (b) 490

Invalid Samples = $2\% \text{ of } 500 = \frac{2}{100} \times 500 = 10\text{ samples}$.
Valid Samples = $500 - 10 = 490\text{ samples}$.
Result: 490. Correct option is (b).

96. Select the correctly spelled medical laboratory term:

96. सही वर्तनी वाले मेडिकल प्रयोगशाला शब्द का चयन करें:

(a) Centrifugation

(b) Centrifugasion

(d) Centrefugation

Answer: (a) Centrifugation

(a) Centrifugation: Correct spelling. Describes density-based particle separation via rotational force.
(b), (c), (d): Phonetic misspelling variations.

97. Select the antonym of the word "ACUTE" in a clinical medical context:

97. नैदानिक चिकित्सा संदर्भ में "ACUTE" शब्द का विलोम शब्द चुनें:

(a) Severe

(b) Chronic

(d) Sharp

Answer: (b) Chronic

(a) Severe: Synonym for high intensity acute onset.
(b) Chronic: Correct antonym. "Acute" indicates sudden short duration; "Chronic" indicates long-standing disease duration.
(c) Sudden: Synonym for acute onset.
(d) Sharp: Descriptive synonym for acute pain.

98. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: "The blood sample was drawn _____ the patient's median cubital vein."

98. सही पूर्वसर्ग से रिक्त स्थान भरें: "The blood sample was drawn _____ the patient's median cubital vein."

(a) from

(b) on

(d) with

Answer: (a) from

(a) from: Correct preposition indicating source or place of origin for venipuncture.
(b), (c), (d): Grammatically incorrect prepositions for drawing fluid samples.

99. Choose the synonym for the clinical word "STERILE":

99. क्लिनिकल शब्द "STERILE" के लिए पर्यायवाची शब्द चुनें:

(a) Contaminated

(b) Aseptic / Free of microbes

(d) Infectious

Answer: (b) Aseptic / Free of microbes

(a) Contaminated: Direct antonym of sterile.
(b) Aseptic / Free of microbes: Correct synonym describing absolute freedom from living microorganisms.
(c) Septic: Infected or contaminated state.
(d) Infectious: Capable of spreading infection.

100. Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

100. व्याकरण की दृष्टि से सही वाक्य चुनें:

(a) Either the technician or the doctors is present.

(b) Either the technician or the doctors are present.

(d) Either technicians or the doctor are present.

Answer: (b) Either the technician or the doctors are present.

Grammar Rule: When subjects are joined by "Either... or", verb agrees with closer subject.
Here, closer subject is plural "doctors", requiring plural verb "are".
(b): Correct agreement ("doctors are").
(a), (c), (d): Violate proximity subject-verb agreement rules.

AIIMS CRE RECRUITMENT EXAMINATION

Technical Officer (MLT) / Lab Technician — Practice Mock Paper [SET 04] (Bilingual)